92學年上學期自然地理學概論題庫

91學年 下學期自然地理學概論題庫

91學年上學期自然地理學概論題庫

90學年自然地理概論題庫

90學年地理學通論題庫

88學年自然地理學題庫

88學年地理學通論題庫

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92上學期自然地理概論期末考題庫   go to top

考試當日於下列各題中[]五題考

1.          因為板塊運動,使得喜馬拉雅山上發現了許多海相的化石證據,請列舉三項海相化石例證。又板塊運動的基本模式有分離板塊運動與聚合板塊運動二種,請說明他們各有哪些形式,並各舉出一實例。「例:海洋板塊與陸地板塊的聚合,如:台灣島弧。(本例請勿選用)」。

2.          何為溫室效應?溫室效應對人類活動有何影響?

3.          何謂風化地形?何謂崩壞地形?請各舉三例說明。

4.          何謂溫室效應?溫室氣體有有哪些?它們對於地球的溫室效應有何影響?

5.          按地理分類法,氣團可分為哪幾類?他的發源地在何地?

6.          按鋒面兩側冷氣團移動方向,鋒可分成哪幾類?他們的天氣特點如何?

7.          按鋒面兩側氣團移動方向,鋒可分成哪幾類?他們的天氣特點如何?

8.          為何一空氣團隨高度增加時,溫度會每100公尺下降約攝氏1度?但到了什麼高度以後,其每100公尺下降溫度會有約攝氏0.3-0.7度的改變,為何有如此的改變?

9.          海底擴張學說有哪些支持證據?為什麼海洋地殼比大陸地殼年輕的多?

10.      試繪連續圖解,示溫帶氣旋的發育過程。

11.      試繪圖說明斷層有哪幾種型態及其影響的地形。

12.      請比較相對濕度和絕對濕度的異同?

13.      請依據飽和水汽壓(E)和實際水汽壓(e)的關係,來判斷並說明蒸發及凝結的動態過程

14.      請解釋一團空氣上升為何產生凝結和降水。什麼是乾絕熱直減率?他和環境直減率有何不同?什麼是濕絕熱直減率?他為什麼比乾絕熱直減率小?

15.      請說明Advection fogRadiation fog之異同

16.      請說明降雨有哪幾種形式?

17.      請說明霧有哪幾種形式?

18.      請簡述科本的氣候分類

19.      濕度有哪幾種表示的方法?各自的含意是什麼?

20.      解釋名詞:

1.          標準氣壓

2.          牛軛湖

3.          河川襲奪

4.          地下水面

5.          蒸散及蒸發

6.          太陽常數

7.          科氏力

8.          風口

9.          錮囚鋒

10.      解譯名詞  mP  cT  cP   albedo

11.      解譯名詞  mT  Sc  Cc  latent heat

12.      解譯名詞  St  Ac  net radiation  scattering 

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91下學期自然地理學題庫  go to top

File: ch02, Chapter 2:  The Earth’s Global Energy Balance

 

Note:  Questions marked with an asterisk are also found in the self-assessment tests on our student companion website.

 

 

 

Multiple Choice

 

 

 

1.  Oxygen accounts for approximately ________ % of the air that surrounds us.

A)    3.5

B)    7.0

C)    10.5

D)    21.0

E)     50.0

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

2. The average albedo of the planet Earth is around:

A)    20%

B)    30%

C)    50%

D)    70%

E)     80%

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

3. Which of the following statements best describes latent heat transfer?

A)    the absorption of energy from a surface during the process of evaporation

B)    the release of energy during the process of condensation

C)    the release of heat from a source of evaporation to the atmosphere

D)    the transfer of energy from one source of condensation to another

E)     the increase in humidity following the release of latent heat

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

*4. Approximately what proportion of the total solar radiation entering the Earth’s atmosphere is directly absorbed by the Earth’s surface?

A)  27%

B)  31%

C)  49%

D)  69%

E)   100%

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

5.  Approximately what proportion of all incoming solar radiation is absorbed by molecules, dust and clouds in the atmosphere?

A)  12%

B)  17%

C)  20%

D)  25%

E)   32%

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

6. When water evaporates from a surface:

A)    energy is liberated and the surface is warmed

B)    energy is absorbed and the surface is cooled

C)    there is no change in energy

D)    the type of surface determines whether heat is lost or gained by the surface

E)     only latent heat is involved in the process

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

7. Which of the following is the correct order from greatest volume to least volume of gases in the troposphere?

A)    Oxygen, carbon dioxide, nitrogen, neon

B)    Nitrogen, argon, oxygen, neon

C)    Nitrogen, oxygen, argon, neon

D)    Oxygen, nitrogen, argon, carbon dioxide

E)     Neon, argon, oxygen, nitrogen

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

8. Which of the following has the longest wavelength?

A)    ultra-violet (UV radiation)

B)    visible light

C)    x-rays

D)    infrared radiation

E)     gamma radiation

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

*9. Which of the following has the shortest wavelength?

A)    ultra-violet (UV radiation)

B)    visible light

C)    x-rays

D)    infrared radiation

E)     gamma radiation

 

Ans: E

 

 

 

10. Insolation is __________.

A)    incoming solar radiation

B)    outgoing solar radiation

C)    outgoing terrestrial radiation

D)    the name given to the blanket-like effect the earth's atmosphere has on global warming

E)     the warming effect of clouds

 

Ans: A

 

 

 

11. What does the Stefan-Boltzmann Law describe?

A)    The temperature of the Sun is a function of the wavelength of the energy it emits

B)    The amount of energy emitted by the Sun is a function of its temperature

C)    The wavelength of the energy emitted by the Sun is a function of its temperature

D)    The wavelength of the energy emitted by the Sun is a function of its size

E)     Some of the solar radiation is lost as it travels to the Earth

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

*12. What does the Wien’s Law describe?

A)    The temperature of the Sun is a function of the wavelength of the energy it emits

B)    The amount of energy emitted by the Sun is a function of its temperature

C)    The wavelength of the energy emitted by the Sun is a function of its temperature

D)    The wavelength of the energy emitted by the Sun is a function of its size

E)     Some of the solar radiation is lost as it travels to the Earth

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

13. The amount of radiation left over when all incoming and outgoing flows have been tallied is called __________.

A)    net radiation

B)    final insolation

C)    greenhouse radiation

D)    total radiation

E)     counter-radiation

 

Ans: A

 

 

 

14. Which of following constant gases accounts for the largest proportion of the air that surrounds us?

A)    oxygen

B)    nitrogen

C)    carbon dioxide

D)    argon

E)     water vapour

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

15. Which of the following surfaces would likely have the highest albedo?

A)    an area covered by pine forest

B)    an asphalt parking lot

C)    an area covered by snow

D)    an area covered by wet sand

E)     an area covered by dry sand

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

16. Which of the following are the most absorptive gases of longwave infrared radiation?

A)    oxygen and argon

B)    carbon dioxide and methane

C)    nitrogen and ozone

D)    oxygen and nitrogen

E)         argon and nitrogen       

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

16. The emission of long-wave radiation by the atmosphere towards the Earth’s surface is termed:

A)    ground heat flow

B)    latent heat

C)    direct radiation

D)    counter-radiation

E)     net radiation

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

*17. What is the range of wavelengths of visible light?

A)    1.2 to 3.0 micrometers

B)    0.7 to 1.2 micrometers

C)    0.4 to 0.7 micrometers

D)    8 to 12 micrometers

E)     3 to 6 micrometers

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

18. What is the magnitude of the solar constant?

A)    550 watts per square meter

B)    745 watts per square meter

C)    1035 watts per square meter

D)    1225 watts per square meter

E)     1370 watts per square meter

 

Ans: E

 

 

 

19. What is the solar constant?

A)    The amount of solar radiation per unit area received at the Earth’s surface

B)    The amount of solar radiation per unit area received outside the Earth’s atmosphere

C)    The amount of solar radiation per unit area received emitted at the Sun’s surface

D)    The amount of solar radiation per unit area received at the equator

E)     The amount of solar radiation per unit area received at the pole

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

20. At what wavelength does the Sun emit most energy?

A)    ultraviolet

B)    visible

C)    infrared

D)    near infrared

E)     gamma radiation

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

21. Which of the following is a consequence of the Sun’s relatively higher temperature compared to that of the Earth?

A)    The Earth is heated more by solar longwave radiation than by solar shortwave radiation

B)    The Earth emits shortwave rather than longwave radiation

C)    The Earth emits longwave rather than shortwave radiation

D)    The Earth receives more scattered energy than direct radiant energy

E)     The Earth receives more direct radiant energy than scattered energy

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

22. What is a blackbody?

A)    An identical model of the way the Sun emits radiant energy

B)    An identical model of the way that all objects emit radiant energy

C)    A theoretical model of the emission of radiant energy

D)    A theoretical model that describes only the Stefan-Boltzmann Law

E)     A model that describes the development of longwave energy

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

23. Which of the following characterizes a synchronous satellite orbit?

A)    The satellite constantly revolves above the equator and moves relative to the Earth’s surface

B)    The satellite constantly revolves above the equator at such an altitude and speed that its position remains constant relative to the Earth’s surface

C)    The satellite orbits the planet from pole to pole with a distinctive angle to the equator

D)    The satellite orbits the Earth using the force of gravity to maintain it in a constant relative location

E)     The satellites position is synchronized with the local time at each location that it observes.

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

24. Which of the following locations would receive most incoming solar radiation at noon during the spring equinox?

A)    The North Pole

B)    The Tropic of Cancer

C)    The Equator

D)    The Tropic of Capricorn

E)     The South Pole

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

*25. The lower solar angles characteristic of high latitude locations leads to lower levels of insolation because:

A)    the solar radiation has further to travel and so looses its strength

B)    the solar radiation is spread over a larger unit area

C)    the solar radiation is spread over a smaller unit area

D)    the solar radiation must travel through more volume of atmosphere and so more radiation is reflected back to space

E)     the high latitude regions receive solar radiation from the cooler part of the Sun

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

26. Imbalances in net radiation between low and high latitudes results in:

A)    poleward heat transfer

B)    latent heat transfer

C)    sensible heat transfer

D)    counter radiation

E)     the greenhouse effect

 

Ans: A

 

 

 

27. Ozone is concentrated in the stratosphere at an altitude of around:

A)    5 kms

B)    10 kms

C)    15 kms

D)    20 kms

E)     25 kms

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

28. Carbon dioxide comprises _____________ % of the Earth’s lower atmosphere.

A)    0.35%

B)    0.035%

C)    3%

D)    5%

E)     10%

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

29. The ozone layer absorbs which of the following wavelengths of radiation?

A)    ultraviolet

B)    visible

C)    infrared

D)    near infrared

E)     gamma radiation

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

30. Ozone forms from the free atoms of which gas?

A)    nitrogen

B)    argon

C)    carbon dioxide

D)    oxygen

E)     water vapor

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

31. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A)    Where net radiation is positive, incoming solar radiation exceeds outgoing longwave radiation

B)    An energy surplus where net radiation is negative, leads to energy moving poleward as latent and sensible heat

C)    Low latitudes (equator-ward than 40 degrees) generally have an energy surplus

D)    High latitudes (pole ward of 40 degrees) generally have an energy deficit

E)     For the entire Earth and atmosphere as a unit, net radiation is zero on an annual basis

 

Ans: B

 

 

File: ch04, Chapter 4: Atmospheric Moisture and Precipitation

 

Note:  Questions marked with an asterisk are also found in the self-assessment tests on our student companion website.

 

 

 

Multiple Choice

 

 

 

1. Thunderstorms are most associated with which of the following precipitation-producing mechanisms?

A)  Orographic uplift

B)  Advection

C)  Conduction

D)  Convection

E)   Wave cyclone development

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

2. Precipitation totals are normally greatest on the _____________ of mountain ranges

A)  northern slopes

B)  southern slopes

C)  leeward slopes

D)  windward slopes

E)   slopes with gentle gradients

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

*3. The average environmental lapse rate is _______________ degrees Celsius per 100 metres

A)  1

B)  10

C)  0.64

D)  6.4

E)   5

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

4. Which of the following types of cloud is found at the highest altitudes?

A)  stratus

B)  cumulus

C)  cirrus

D)  nimbostratus

E)   altocumulus

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

5. The dry adiabatic lapse rate  is _______ degrees Celsius per kilometer.

A)    2.5

B)    10.0

C)    0.10

D)    6.4

E)     0.64

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

6. The temperature at which a parcel of air becomes saturated and condensation begins is called the  _______.

A) point of vaporization

B) dew point

C) absolute humidity

D) latent heat of fusion

E) specific humidity

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

*7. Which of the following orderings of clouds is correct as one increases in altitude?

A) cirrus, cumulonimbus, stratocumulus

B) stratus, altocumulus, cirrus

C) cumulonimbus, cirrocumulus, cumulus

D) altocumulus, cumulonimbus, stratus

E) cirrus, stratus, altocumulus

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

8. The direct transition from solid ice to gaseous water vapor is known as:

A) evaporation

B) deposition

C) sublimation

D) condensation

E) melting

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

9. During which of the following processes is latent heat released?

A) deposition

B) sublimation

C) melting

D) evaporation

E) precipitation

 

Ans: A

 

 

 

10. Which of the following components of the hydrological comprises the greatest volume of water on Earth?

A) soil water

B) steam channels

C) freshwater lakes

D) saline lakes and inland seas

E) groundwater

 

Ans: E

 

 

 

11. Which of the following statements concerning humidity is incorrect?

A) A sling psychrometer is an instrument comprised of two thermometers

B) If all other variables remain constant, a decrease in temperature leads to a decrease in humidity

C) Relative humidity compares the amount of water vapor present to the maximum amount that the air can hold at that temperature, expressed as a percentage.

D) Air at 20 degrees Celsius can hold three times as much water vapor as air at 0 degrees Celsius

E) If air is cooled it will eventually reach saturation

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

*12. During adiabatic cooling as air rises, what stage has the parcel of air reached at the lifting condensation level?

A) a. point of vaporization

B) dew point

C) absolute humidity

D) latent heat of fusion

E) specific humidity

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

13. Why is the wet adiabatic lapse less than the dry adiabatic lapse rate?

A) Water is colder at high altitudes

B) Dry air heats more quickly than wet air

C) Evaporation as air rises keeps air dry and therefore warmer

D) Condensation of water releases heat

E) Formation of water droplets absorbs latent heat

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

14. If the sky appears to be completely gray during the day, what type of clouds are present?

A) cumulus

B) cirrus

C) stratus

D) cumulonimbus

E) altocumulus

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

15. Which of the following situations would lead to radiation fog?

A) At night the temperature of the air layer at the ground falls below the temperature at which condensation begins

B) During the day, the temperature of the air layer at the ground increases as a nearby air mass moves in

C) Radiation fog commonly develops at the coast and is the result of warm marine air moving into coastal regions

D) Radiation fog commonly develops at the coast and is the result of cold marine air moving into coastal regions

E) Radiation fog commonly develops when warm moist air moves over a cold surface

 

Ans: A

 

 

 

16. Which of the following situations would lead to advection fog?

A) At night the temperature of the air layer at the ground falls below the temperature at which condensation begins

B) During the day, the temperature of the air layer at the ground increases as a nearby air mass moves in

C) Radiation fog commonly develops at the coast and is the result of warm marine air moving into coastal regions

D) Radiation fog commonly develops at the coast and is the result of cold marine air moving into coastal regions

E) Radiation fog commonly develops when warm moist air moves over a cold surface

 

Ans: E

 

 

 

17. If ice crystals fall from clouds through the an underlying air layer that is below zero, which of the following forms of precipitation would result?

A) rain

B) sleet

C) hail

D) snow

E) drizzle

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

18. What is a Chinook wind?

A) A weak flow associated with convection

B) A strong, persistent flow associated with convection

C) A weak flow associated with descending warm air

D) A strong, persistent flow associated with descending air

E) A flow of cold, dense air flows under the force of gravity from high to low regions

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

20. Maps to show the distribution of precipitation use lines that connect locations with equal precipitation called:

A) isobars

B) isohyets

C) isobars

D) isotach

E) isohypse

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

*21. Cumulus clouds forming from convection have flat bases that mark the:

A) location of the dew point temperature

B) mixing layer

C) tropopause

D) zone of unstable air

E) lifting condensation level

 

Ans: E

 

 

 

22. As a volume of air rises, __________.

A) it expands and becomes cooler

B) it expands and becomes warmer

C) it contracts and becomes cooler

D) it contracts and becomes warmer

E) it expands but its temperature does not change

 

Ans: A

 

 

 

23. Which of the following conditions would lead to unstable air?

A) When air is dry and cool

B) When air is dry, cool and descending

C) When the environmental lapse rate exceeds the adiabatic lapse rate

D) When the adiabatic lapse rate exceeds the environmental lapse rate

E) When the environmental lapse rate equals the adiabatic lapse rate

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

24. The so-called anvil top of a thunder cloud is the result of which of the following phenomena?

A) The anvil indicates the position of the tropopause which acts as a lid

B) Fast-moving, high altitude winds 

C) Diversion of the cloud top by a nearby front

D) Asymmetrical condensation

E) High level clouds take up more space than lower level clouds

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

25. Which of the following statements is correct?

A) The wet adiabatic lapse rate is variable

B) The wet adiabatic lapse rate is constant

C) The dry adiabatic lapse rate is variable

D) The altitude of the lifting condensation level is constant

E) The adiabatic lapse rate is constant

 

Ans: A

 

 

 

26. Rounded or globular masses of cloud are referred to as:

A) mackerel sky

B) stratiform

C) stratus

D) cumuliform

E) cirrus

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

27. Which of the following is not characteristic of a thunderstorm?

A) strong updrafts

B) strong winds

C) rain and snow at intermediate altitudes of the cloud

D) small raindrops

E) potentially large hailstones

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

*28. The sound generated by thunder is the result of which phenomena?

A) The impact of lightning hitting the ground

B) The rapid expansion of air heated by lightning

C) The sound of the electrical current associated with lightning

D) The sound of updrafts

E) The sound of downdrafts

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

29. Which of the following atmospheric conditions can lead to the accumulation of smog?

A) Prolonged, heavy rain

B) High wind speeds

C) Temperature inversion

D) Interior location

E) Mountain location

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

30. The rainshadow is located on the:

A) leeward side of a mountain range

B) windward side of a mountain range

C) peak of a mountain range

D) edge of desert regions

E) edge of coastal regions

 

Ans: A

 

 

File: ch06, Chapter 6:  Weather Systems

 

Note:  Questions marked with an asterisk are also found in the self-assessment tests on our student companion website.

 

 

Multiple Choice

 

 

 

*1. Which of the following statements concerning tropical depressions is incorrect?

A)  They are weak low pressure troughs.

B)  Their formation is associated with easterly waves or equatorial lows.

C)  In some cases, they may develop into tropical storms.

D)  They have an anticyclonic organization.

E)  Air spirals inward at ground surface and then rises.

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

2. The phenomena which leads to the development of tropical storms is:

A) convergent lifting precipitation

B) the inter-tropical convergence zone

C) a polar outbreak

D) a westerly wave

E) an easterly wave

 

Ans: E

 

 

 

3. Cold fronts compared to  warm fronts are:

A) slower moving, with more intense rainfall

B) faster moving, with more intense rainfall

C) slower moving, with less intense rainfall

D) faster moving, with less intense rainfall

E) faster moving, with rainfall of long duration

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

4. A hurricane's strongest winds and heaviest rainfall are found in __________.

A) its northeast quarter

B) its southern half

C) its eye wall

D) that portion that remains over land

E) at the centre of the eye

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

5. An Arctic air mass differs from a Polar air mass in that:

A) Arctic air masses are colder than Polar air masses

B) Arctic air masses contains less moisture than Polar air masses

C) Arctic air masses originate from continental regions, whereas a Polar air masses originate over oceans

D) Arctic air masses originate over Arctic oceans and nearby land, whereas Polar air masses form over a distinct latitude zone from 50 to 60 degrees latitude

E) Arctic air masses originate over form over the eastern Arctic, whereas Polar air masses form over western Arctic oceans

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

*6. An air mass that forms over warm oceans from an equatorial region would be designated by which of the following symbols?

A) cP

B) cE

C) mE

D) mA

E) mAA

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

7. An air mass that forms over a mid-latitude ocean would be designated by which of the following symbols?

A) mP

B) mA

C) cP

D) cA

E) mT

 

Ans: A

 

 

 

8. Warm fronts compared to cold fronts are:

A) slower moving, with more intense rainfall

B) faster moving, with more intense rainfall

C) slower moving, with less intense rainfall

D) faster moving, with less intense rainfall

E) faster moving, with rainfall of long duration

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

9. Which of the following weather systems are associated with anticyclonic conditions?

A) cool, wet weather

B) fine rain of lasting duration

C) thick cloud and heavy rain

D) few clouds with no rain

E) high wind speeds with no rain

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

10. Which of the following is not one of the types of traveling cyclones?

A) arctic wave cyclone

B) tropical cyclone

C) tornado

D) midlatitude wave cyclone

E) arctic ridge

 

Ans: E

 

 

 

11. A wave begins to form in a wave cyclone during which of the following stages?

A) early stage

B) open stage

C) closed stage

D) occluded

E) dissolving stage

 

Ans: A

 

 

 

*12. The cold front overtakes the warm front during which of the following stages in the development of a wave cyclone?

A) early stage

B) open stage

C) closed stage

D) occluded

E) dissolving stage

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

13. Warm air at the center of a wave cyclone is forced off the ground intensifying precipitation during which of the following stages?

A) early stage

B) open stage

C) closed stage

D) occluded

E) dissolving stage

 

Ans: A

 

 

 

14. What is the approximate size of a wave cyclone?

A) 10 kilometers (about 6 miles) across

B) 100 kilometers (about 60 miles) across

C) 200 kilometers (about 120 miles) across

D) 500 kilometers (about 300 miles) across

E) 1000 kilometers (about 600 miles) across

 

Ans: E

 

 

 

15. Which of the following statements describes the global paths of tropical cyclones.

A) From east to west in the northern hemisphere and from west to east in the southern hemisphere

B) From west to east in the northern hemisphere and from east to west in the southern hemisphere

C) From east to west in both the northern and southern hemispheres

D) From west to east in both the northern and southern hemispheres

E)  From east to west in the northern hemisphere and from south to north in the southern hemisphere

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

*16. Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the development of tornadoes?

A) Cool, stable air associated with interior, mountain regions

B) Warm, stable air associated with continental interiors

C) Cold front lifts a warm front leading to turbulence

D) Cold front lifts another cold front leading to alternating patches of stable and unstable air

E) Warm dry front lifts a cool maritime front leading to turbulence

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

17. Wind speed associated with tornadoes may be as high as:

A) 50 kilometers per hour (30 miles per hour)

B) 100 kilometers per hour (60 miles per hour)

C) 200 kilometers per hour (125 miles per hour)

D) 400 kilometers per hour (250 miles per hour)

E) 550 kilometers per hour (340 miles per hour)

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

18. Wind speed associated with hurricanes are normally within the range of:

A) 20 to 50 kilometers per hour (12 to 30 miles per hour)

B) 50 to 100 kilometers per hour (30 to 60 miles per hour)

C) 120 to 200 kilometers per hour (75 to 125 miles per hour)

D) 200 to 400 kilometers per hour (125 to 250 miles per hour)

E) 400 to 550 kilometers per hour (250 to 340 miles per hour)

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

19. Which of the following conditions is associated with the eye of a hurricane?

A) ascending air cooling adiabatically

B) descending air cooling adiabatically

C) ascending air warming adiabatically

D) descending air warming adiabatically

E) ascending air that neither warms or cools

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

20. What are hurricanes known as in the western Pacific region?

A) hurricane

B) typhoon

C) cyclone

D) depression

E) wave cyclone

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

*21. Which of the following features does the Simpson-Safir Scale not describe with regard to hurricanes?

A) rainfall amounts

B) cyclone intensity

C) central pressure

D) storm surges

E) mean wind speed

 

Ans: A

 

 

 

22. Most tropical cyclones in the North Atlantic originate in which of the following latitude zones?

A) 0 to 10 degrees North and South

B) 10 to 20 degrees North

C) 15 to 20 degrees South

D) 20 to 30 degrees North

E) 20 to 30 degrees South

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

23. What is the usual season for hurricanes in the North Atlantic?

A) May through July

B) June through August

C) May through August

D) May through November

E) July through November

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

24. Which of the following is not one of the primary factors that contribute to a storm surge?

A) underwater shape of the bay floor

B) low atmospheric pressures

C) high wind speeds

D) high intensity hurricane

E) heavy rain

 

Ans: E

 

 

 

25. Which cloud types are most associated with hurricanes?

A) Cumulus near the center, with stratus at the outer edges of the storm

B) Cumulonimbus near the center, with cirrus at the outer edges of the storm

C) Stratus near the center, with cirrus at the outer edges of the storm

D) Cumulonimbus near the center, with stratus at the outer edges of the storm

E) Cirrus near the center, with stratus at the outer edges of the storm

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

26. Uncharacteristic periods of low temperatures occasionally occur in low latitude regions. These are the result of:

A) easterly wave

B) westerly wave

C) weak equatorial low

D) polar outbreak

E) mid latitude wave cyclones

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

27. What is the role of the Hadley cell in the transport of heat and moisture toward the poles?

A) The Hadley cell pumps heat from the subtropical zone toward the poles

B) The Hadley cell produces the Rossby wave mechanism that leads to the development of mid-latitude cyclones

C) Rising air at the ITCZ moves poleward and descends at the subtropical high to move heat and moisture poleward

D) Descending air at the ITCZ moves poleward and ascends at the subtropical high to move heat and moisture poleward

E) Sensible heat is acquired in tropical and equatorial regions and is moved northward into the North Atlantic.

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

*28. As a wave cyclone advances into a region which of the following cloud types would be first observe?

A) Cumulonimbus

B) Stratus

C) Cumulus

D) Cirruss

E) Nimbostratus

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

29. Which of the following statements describes the global paths of tropical cyclones.

A) From east to west in the northern hemisphere and from west to east in the southern hemisphere

B) From west to east in the northern hemisphere and from east to west in the southern hemisphere

C) From east to west in both the northern and southern hemispheres

D) From west to east in both the northern and southern hemispheres

E)  From east to west in the northern hemisphere and from south to north in the southern hemisphere

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

30. In equatorial regions, slight convergence and uplift can trigger precipitation because:

A) the wind speeds in these regions are usually consistent and rapid

B) the atmosphere contains large amounts of moisture

C) the Coriolis force exerts greater influence on these processes and so enhance convergence and uplift

D) the warmer air temperatures allow clouds to develop more quickly than in cooler regions

E) there are normally many centers of low pressure that enhance the development of clouds and precipitation.

 

Ans: B

 

 

File: ch12, Chapter 12:  The Lithosphere and Plate Tectonics

 

Note:  Questions marked with an asterisk are also found in the self-assessment tests on our student companion website.

 

 

 

Multiple Choice

 

 

 

*1. Two large plates moving away from the mid-Atlantic ridge are the __________ and the _____________.

A) Australian Plate / Nazca Plate

B) Atlantic Plate / Antarctic Plate

C) North American Plate / Juan de Fuca Plate

D) South American Plate / African Plate

E) Cocos Plate /  Nazca Plate

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

2. Which of the following features is not associated with diverging crustal plate boundaries?

A) Island arcs

B) mid-ocean ridge

C) rift valley

D) Fluid, low-silica lava

E) Lava containing significant amounts of magnesium

 

Ans: A

 

 

 

3. How does the age of ocean rock vary with distance from ocean ridges?

A) Only young rocks are found near the ridges with progressively older rocks appearing with distance from the ridges.

B) The oldest rocks are found adjacent to the ridges, with progressively younger rocks found with distance from the ridges.

C) All rocks in oceans basins are the same age.

D) The age of rocks varies with distance from subduction zones only.

E) The age of rocks within ocean basins varies with depth rather than distance from ocean ridges.

 

Ans: A

 

 

 

4. Comparatively inactive regions of very old continental rocks are referred to as:

A) continental shields

B) suspect terrains

C) alpine chains

D) mountain arcs

E) orogenic belts

 

Ans: A

 

 

 

5. The boundary between the crust and the mantle is referred to as the: ____________.

A) Inner core

B) Outer core

C) Asthenosphere

D) Lithosphere

E) Moho

 

Ans: E

 

 

 

6. Which layer of the Earth is liquid and comprised largely of iron and nickel?

A) Inner core

B) Outer core

C) Lower mantle

D) Upper mantle

E) Asthenosphere

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

7. The so-called "Moho" __________.

A) is an abbreviation for the famous "mole hole" bore hole which yielded the deepest crustal core sample ever collected

B) is the name given to the contact plane between the crust and mantle

C) is the name given to the sharp break in composition between oceanic and continental crust

D) refers to a research station on the coast of Yugoslavia where much of the early research on earthquakes was performed

E) is the name given to the boundary between the core and the mantle

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

8. The rocks of the oceanic crust are largely composed of ________.

A) ferrous metals

B) felsic minerals

C) granite

D) mafic minerals

E) silica only

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

*9. The rocks of the continental crust are most commonly described as ________.

A) ferrous

B) felsic

C) granitic

D) mafic

E) basaltic

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

10. The ________ is the soft, hot layer of rock located in the ________.

A) lithosphere/crust

B) crust/mantle

C) asthenosphere/mantle

D) asthenosphere/crust

E) crust/asthenosphere

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

11. The process of seafloor spreading involves the creation of new crust and its continuous movement away from its source.  Which of the following serve as that source?

A) mid-oceanic ridges

B) hotspots on the ocean floor called magma oases

C) oceanic trenches, oftentimes several thousand meters below the surface of the seafloor

D) the sources are varied, with little seeming logic to their locales

 

Ans: A

 

 

 

12. The Nazca Plate is wedged between the __________.

A) South American and Pacific Plates

B) Pacific and North American Plates

C) Eurasian and African Plates

D) South American and African Plates

E) South American and Caribbean Plates

 

Ans: A

 

 

 

13. A fold that is arch-like and has completely folded over itself is:

A) an recumbent anticline

B) an overturned syncline

C) a plunging anticline

D) a divergent anticline

E) a recumbent syncline

 

Ans: A

 

 

 

*14. Which of the following features is not associated with converging crustal plate boundaries?

A) deep-ocean trench

B) island arcs

C) non-explosive volcanoes

D) mountain building

E) explosive volcanoes

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

15. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the composition of continental crust?

A) Continental crust is composed of rocks very similar to basalt

B) Continental crust is made up entirely of mafic rocks

C) Continental crust is made up entirely of felsic rocks

D) Continental crust has a composition identical to oceanic crust

E) Continental crust is made up of both mafic and felsic rock

 

Ans: E

 

 

 

16.The radius of the Earth is approximately:

A) 4200 kilometers (2600 miles)

B) 6400 kilometers (4000 miles)

C) 7200 kilometers (4400 miles)

D) 8300 kilometers (5100 miles)

E) 9100 kilometers (5600 miles)

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

17. What is the approximate age of the Earth?

A) 1.9 billion years

B) 2.8 billion years

C) 3.4 billion years

D) 4.6 billion years

E) 6.5 billion years

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

18. If you were to move from a continental landmass out to sea, in what order would you encounter continental and ocean basin relief features?

A) continental slope, continental shelf, continental rise, abyssal plain

B) continental shelf, continental rise, continental slope, abyssal plain

C) continental shelf, continental slope, continental rise, abyssal plain

D) continental rise, continental slope, continental margin, abyssal plain

E) continental margin, continental slope, continental shelf, abyssal plain

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

19. Which tectonic plate is located between the South American Plate and the Antarctic Plate?

A) Philippine plate

B) Bismark plate

C) Caroline plate

D) Scotia plate

E) Cocos plate

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

*20. The boundary between the North American Plate and the Eurasian Plate is a:

A) converging boundary

B) spreading boundary

C) transform boundary

D) continental suture

E) boundary that is currently not classified

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

21. The boundary between the North American Plate and the northern portion of the Pacific plate is a:

A) converging boundary

B) spreading boundary

C) transform boundary

D) continental suture

E) boundary that is currently not classified

 

Ans: A

 

 

 

22. A fault boundary where there is horizontal motion of two adjacent plates, one sliding past the other is referred to as a:

A) rift fault

B) reverse fault

C) overthrust fault

D) transform fault

E) normal fault

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

23. A boundary whereby two plates have become permanently attached and ending tectonic activity is referred to as a:

A) converging boundary

B) spreading boundary

C) transform boundary

D) continental suture

E) boundary that is currently not classified

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

24. Which of the following is associated with a subduction zone?

A) oceanic trench

B) midocean ridge

C) rift valley

D) axial rift

E) continental shield

 

Ans: A

 

 

 

25. The original supercontinent first envisaged by Wegener is referred to as:

A) Koppenland

B) Wegenerland

C) Pangea

D) Laurasia

E) Gondwanaland

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

26. Mountain arcs are a type of:

A) continental shield

B) exposed shield

C) covered shield

D) mountain root

E) alpine chain

 

Ans: E

 

 

 

27. The Canadian shield is an example of a:

A) continental shelf

B) exposed shield

C) covered shield

D) mountain root

E) alpine chain

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

*28. Folding accompanied by faulting where slices of rock move over the underlying rock is referred to as:

A) rift fault

B) reverse fault

C) overthrust fault

D) transform fault

E) normal fault

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

29. What type of boundary is associated with the San Andreas fault?

A) converging boundary

B) spreading boundary

C) transform boundary

D) continental suture

E) boundary that is currently not classified

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

30. The boundary marked by the mid-Atlantic ridge is a:

A) converging boundary

B) spreading boundary

C) transform boundary

D) continental suture

E) boundary that is currently not classified

 

Ans: B

 

File: ch14, Chapter 14:   Weathering and Mass Wasting

 

Note:  Questions marked with an asterisk are also found in the self-assessment tests on our student companion website.

 

 

 

Multiple Choice

 

 

 

1. ________________ refers to large areas covered by angular, broken rock

A)  alluvium

B)  bedrock

C)  felsenmeer

D)  moraine

E)  solifluction

 

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

2. Fractures in rocks where there is no relative movement are referred to as _____________.

A) talus

B) faults

C) joints

D) blocks

E) scree

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

*3. Which of the following processes could result in an induced earthflow?

A) weak local geology

B) heavy prolonged rain

C) severe earthquake

D) piling of waste soil and rock in unstable accumulation

E) prolonged periods of dry conditions

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

4. An earthflow characteristic of periglacial environments is referred to as a (an) _______________.

A) slump

B) solifluction

C) scarification

D) creep

E) felsenmeer

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

5. Which of the following types of weathering affects limestone and occurs predominantly in humid areas?

A) frost action

B) spheroidal weathering

C) acid action

D) eluviation

E) hydrolysis

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

6. The extremely slow down-hill movement of soil and regolith is called _______________.

A) mass wasting

B) soil creep

C) solifluction

D) scarification

E) weathering

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

7.  Slumping is an example of a _________________.

A) creep movement

B) earthflow movement

C) slide movement

D) fall movement

E) solifluction

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

8. Which of the following rocks and minerals would be most resistant to chemical weathering?

A) Quartz

B) Dolomite

C) Limestone

D) Calcite

E) Chalk

 

Ans: A

 

 

 

9. Which of the following indicates oxidation?

A) spheroidal weathering

B) red coloration of rocks and soil

C) joints in rocks being opened up freezing and thawing

D) the splitting of rocks by plant roots

E) mass wasting

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

*10.  Exfoliation is the result of which of the following processes?

A) biological weathering

B) unloading

C) carbonation

D) oxidation

E) frost action

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

11.  Which of the following is most significant in the formation of a talus cone?

A) biological weathering

B) unloading

C) carbonation

D) oxidation

E) frost action

 

Ans: E

 

 

 

 12. Accumulations of regolith at the foot of a slope are called ____________ .

A) earthflow

B) scarification

C) outcrop

D) colluvium

E) alluvium

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

 13. Which of the following types of mass movements is fastest and least dependent upon moist or saturated conditions?

A) solifluction

B) rock fall

C) slide

D) slump

E) solifluction

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

14. Which of the following may lead to the environmental degradation of permafrost?

A) deposition of sediments

B) addition of organic matter to the soil surface

C) removal of surface vegetation

D) growth of natural surface vegetation

E) all of the above

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

15. The permafrost table ________________.

A) is the upper surface of the active layer

B) includes the entire soil body of regions experiencing permafrost

C) is synonymous with the arctic water table

D) is the lowest portion of the body of permafrost

E) is the upper surface of permafrost

 

Ans: E

 

 

 

16. ______________ occurs when the stress created by the freezing of water into ice becomes greater than the cohesive strength of the rock containing it.

A) frost heaving

B) frost creep

C) frost thrusting

D) frost wedging

E) frost action

 

Ans: E

 

 

 

17. Salt crystal growth is associated with which of the following climates?

A) wet tropical climate

B) mid-latitude climates

C) arid desert climates

D) west coast humid climates

E) cold polar climates

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

18. Unloading is also referred to as:

A) exfoliation

B) granular disintegration

C) hydrolysis

D) oxidation

E) acid action

 

Ans: A

 

 

 

*19. Niche formation is associated with which of the following types of weathering?

A) acid action

B) oxidation

C) frost action

D) salt-crystal growth

E) granular disintegration

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

20. The general term to describe land disturbances such as excavations and strip mining is:

A) disintegration

B) spoilage

C) tailings

D) dredging

E) scarification

 

Ans: E

 

 

 

21. The rock waste associated with land disturbances such as excavations and strip mining is referred to as:

A) tailings

B) scree

C) talus

D) regolith

E) alluvium

 

Ans: A

 

 

 

22. The strata covering a resources such as coal that is being removed in strip mining is known as the:

A) tailings

B) scree

C) spoil

D) regolith

E) overburden

 

Ans: E

 

 

 

23. Permafrost associated with high elevations is referred to as:

A) continuous permafrost

B) discontinuous permafrost

C) alpine permafrost

D) sub-sea permafrost

E) sporadic permafrost

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

*24. Which of the following types of permafrost may be found under lakes or rivers?

A) continuous permafrost

B) discontinuous permafrost

C) alpine permafrost

D) sub-sea permafrost

E) sporadic permafrost

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

25. The zone of permafrost south of discontinuous permafrost in which occasional patches of permafrost occur is referred to as:

A) continuous permafrost

B) discontinuous permafrost

C) alpine permafrost

D) sub-sea permafrost

E) sporadic permafrost

 

Ans: E

 

 

 

26. The gaps in permafrost are known as:

A) pingos

B) taliks

C) tailings

D) wedges

E) polygons

 

Ans: B

 

 

 

27. The patterning on the ground surface in periglacial regions associated with silty alluvium such as found in floodplains is referred to as:

A) solifluction ground

B) pingos

C) ice-wedge polygons

D) thermokarst

E) thermal erosion

 

Ans: C

 

 

 

28. A conical mound with a core of ice found in periglacial regions is referred to as a:

A) pingo

B) talik

C) tailing

D) wedge

E) polygon

 

Ans: A

 

 

 

29. The sorting of surface pebbles and cobbles on slopes in periglacial regions results in:

A) stone nets

B) stone polygons

C) stone rings

D) stone stripes

E) stone wedges

 

Ans: D

 

 

 

*30. Thermokarst is characterized by which of the following features?

A) patterned ground

B) thickened permafrost

C) stone polygons

D) depressions

E) pingos

 

Ans: D

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91學年上學期  期末考題目         學號:              姓名   go to top

 

BBCAD  CEDDA ACEEA A

 

1. Approximately what proportion of the total solar radiation entering the Earth’s atmosphere is directly absorbed by the Earth’s surface?

A) 59%

B)  49%

C)  39%

D)  29%

E)   19%

 

 

2. What is the range of wavelengths of visible light?

A)    0.1 to 0.3 micrometers

B)    0.4 to 0.7 micrometers

C)    0.7 to 1.2 micrometers

D)    0.8 to 1.4 micrometers

E)     1.3 to 1.6 micrometers

 

3. What is a blackbody?

A)    An identical model of the way the Sun emits radiant energy

B)    An identical model of the way that all objects emit radiant energy

C)    A theoretical model of the emission of radiant energy

D)    A theoretical model that describes only the Stefan-Boltzmann Law

E)     A model that describes the development of longwave energy

 

4. The lower solar angles characteristic of high latitude locations leads to lower levels of insolation because:

A)    the solar radiation is spread over a larger unit area

B)    the solar radiation must travel through more volume of atmosphere and so more radiation is reflected back to space

C)     the solar radiation has further to travel and so looses its strength

D)    the solar radiation is spread over a smaller unit area

E)     the high latitude regions receive solar radiation from the cooler part of the Sun

 

5. The average environmental lapse rate is _______________ degrees Celsius per 1000 metres

A)  1

B)  10

C)  0.64

D)  6.4

E)   5

 

6. Which of the following types of cloud is found at the highest altitudes?

A)  stratus

B)  cumulus

C)  cirrus

D)  nimbostratus

E)   altocumulus

 

7. Which of the following situations would lead to advection fog?

A) At night the temperature of the air layer at the ground falls below the temperature at which condensation begins

B) During the day, the temperature of the air layer at the ground increases as a nearby air mass moves in

C) Radiation fog commonly develops at the coast and is the result of warm marine air moving into coastal regions

D) Radiation fog commonly develops at the coast and is the result of cold marine air moving into coastal regions

E) Radiation fog commonly develops when warm moist air moves over a cold surface

 

8. Why is the wet adiabatic lapse less than the dry adiabatic lapse rate?

A) Water is colder at high altitudes

B) Dry air heats more quickly than wet air

C) Evaporation as air rises keeps air dry and therefore warmer

D) Condensation of water releases heat

E) Formation of water droplets absorbs latent heat

 

9. An air mass that forms over warm oceans from an Tropical region would be designated by which of the following symbols?

A) cP

B) cE

C) mE

D) mT

E) mAA

 

10. Which of the following statements concerning tropical depressions is incorrect?

A)  They have an anticyclonic organization.

B)  Their formation is associated with easterly waves or equatorial lows.

C)  In some cases, they may develop into tropical storms.

D)  They are weak low pressure troughs.

E)  Air spirals inward at ground surface and then rises.

 

11. A wave begins to form in a wave cyclone during which of the following stages?

A) early stage

B) open stage

C) closed stage

D) occluded

E) dissolving stage

 

12. Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the development of tornadoes?

A) Cool, stable air associated with interior, mountain regions

B) Warm, stable air associated with continental interiors

C) Cold front lifts a warm front leading to turbulence

D) Cold front lifts another cold front leading to alternating patches of stable and unstable air

E) Warm dry front lifts a cool maritime front leading to turbulence

 

13. The rocks of the oceanic crust are most commonly described as ________.

A) ferrous

B) felsic

C) granitic

D) mafic

E) basaltic

 

14. Which of the following features is not associated with converging crustal plate boundaries?

A) deep-ocean trench

B) island arcs

C) explosive volcanoes

D) mountain building

E) non-explosive volcanoes

 

15. The boundary between the North American Plate and the northern portion of the Pacific plate is a:

A) converging boundary

B) spreading boundary

C) transform boundary

D) continental suture

E) boundary that is currently not classified

 

16. How does the age of ocean rock vary with distance from ocean ridges?

A) Only young rocks are found near the ridges with progressively older rocks appearing with distance from the ridges.

B) The oldest rocks are found adjacent to the ridges, with progressively younger rocks found with distance from the ridges.

C) All rocks in oceans basins are the same age.

D) The age of rocks varies with distance from subduction zones only.

E) The age of rocks within ocean basins varies with depth rather than distance from ocean ridges.

 

17.請說明為何台灣冬季吹東北季風而夏季吹西南季風?

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90自然地理概論期末考題庫   go to top

考試當日於下列各題中[]五題考

1.   請繪圖說明為何地球會有四季的變化與日常夜短的情形

2.   請依據飽和水汽壓(E)和實際水汽壓(e)的關係,來判斷並說明蒸發及凝結的動態過程

3.  請說明為何台灣冬季吹東北季風而夏季吹西南季風?

4.  因為板塊運動,使得喜馬拉雅山上發現了許多海相的化石證據,請列舉三項海相化石例證。又板塊運動的基本模式有分離板塊運動與聚合板塊運動二種,請說明他們各有哪些形式,並各舉出一實例。「例:海洋板塊與陸地板塊的聚合,如:台灣島弧。(本例請勿選用)」。

5.  何謂溫室效應?溫室氣體有有哪些?它們對於地球的溫室效應有何影響?

6.  請解釋一團空氣上升為何產生凝結和降水。什麼是乾絕熱直減率?他和環境直減率有何不同?什麼是濕絕熱直減率?他為什麼比濕絕熱直減率小?

7.  何謂溫室效應?溫室氣體有有哪些?它們對於地球的溫室效應有何影響?

8.  試繪連續圖解,示溫帶氣旋的發育過程。

9.  海底擴張學說有哪些支持證據?為什麼海洋地殼比大陸地殼年輕的多?

10.  按地理分類法,氣團可分為哪幾類?他的發源地在何地?

 11. 按鋒面兩側氣團移動方向,鋒可分成哪幾類?他們的天氣特點如何?

12.  請簡述科本的氣候分類

13. 請比較相對濕度和絕對濕度的異同?

14. 請說明霧有哪幾種形式?

15. 請說明降雨有哪幾種形式?

16. 濕度有哪幾種表示的方法?各自的含意是什麼?

17. 請說明Advection fogRadiation fog之異同

18. 解譯名詞  mP  cT  cP   albedo

19. 解譯名詞  mT  Sc  Cc  latent heat

20 解譯名詞  St  Ac  net radiation  scattering 

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90地理學通論期末考題庫go to top

考試當日於下列各題中[]4題考

1. 請繪圖說明為何地球會有四季的變化與日常夜短的情形

2.   請依據飽和水汽壓(E)和實際水汽壓(e)的關係,來判斷並說明蒸發及凝結的動態過程

3.  請說明為何台灣冬季吹東北季風而夏季吹西南季風?

4.  因為板塊運動,使得喜馬拉雅山上發現了許多海相的化石證據,請列舉三項海相化石例證。又板塊運動的基本模式有分離板塊運動與聚合板塊運動二種,請說明他們各有哪些形式,並各舉出一實例。「例:海洋板塊與陸地板塊的聚合,如:台灣島弧。(本例請勿選用)」。

5.  何謂溫室效應?溫室氣體有有哪些?它們對於地球的溫室效應有何影響?

6.  請解釋一團空氣上升為何產生凝結和降水。什麼是乾絕熱直減率?他和環境直減率有何不同?什麼是濕絕熱直減率?他為什麼比濕絕熱直減率小?

7.  試繪連續圖解,示溫帶氣旋的發育過程。

8. 海底擴張學說有哪些支持證據?為什麼海洋地殼比大陸地殼年輕的多?

9.  按地理分類法,氣團可分為哪幾類?他的發源地在何地?

 10. 按鋒面兩側冷氣團移動方向,鋒可分成哪幾類?他們的天氣特點如何?

11. 請比較相對濕度和絕對濕度的異同?

12. 請說明霧有哪幾種形式?

13. 請說明降雨有哪幾種形式?

14. 濕度有哪幾種表示的方法?各自的含意是什麼? 

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自然地理學題庫  go to top

考試當日於下列各題中[]五題考

比較平流霧與輻射霧的成因有何異同?

 試繪連續圖解,示溫帶氣旋的發育過程。

 試繪圖說明斷層有哪幾種型態及其影響的地形。

  試繪圖解釋自由水、棲留水、受壓水、毛管水和自流井、廣口井、泉及地下水面等名詞。

因為板塊運動,使得喜馬拉雅山上發現了許多海相的化石證據,請列舉三項海相化石例證。又板塊運動的基本模式有分離板塊運動與聚合板塊運動二種,請說明他們各有哪些形式,並各舉出一實例。「例:海洋板塊與陸地板塊的聚合,如:台灣島弧。(本例請勿選用)」

  何為溫室效應?溫室效應對人類活動有何影響?

氣旋和反氣旋在結構上有哪些差異?試條述之。

 何謂風化地形?何謂崩壞地形?請各舉三例說明。

 試述河谷的發育有哪些作用力?

海底擴張學說有哪些支持證據?為什麼海洋地殼比大陸地殼年輕的多?

  按地理分類法,氣團可分為哪幾類?他的發源地在何地?

 按鋒面兩側冷氣團移動方向,鋒可分成哪幾類?他們的天氣特點如何?

  何謂季風?季風是如何形成的?

 為何一空氣團隨高度增加時,溫度會每100公尺下降約攝氏1度?但到了什麼高度以後,其每100公尺下降溫度會有約攝氏0.3-0.7度的改變,為何有如此的改變?

請比較相對濕度和絕對濕度的異同?

  請說明霧有哪幾種形式?

 請說明降雨有哪幾種形式?

  濕度有哪幾種表示的方法?各自的含意是什麼?

若以分子運動理論來說明蒸發、凝結、動態平衡過程,怎樣根據Ee來判定上述三種過程?

 塊體運動按其運動方式及速度的差異,可分為哪四種類形,並說明之。

  解釋名詞:

1.  標準氣壓

2.  牛軛湖

3.  河川襲奪

4.  地下水面

5.  蒸散及蒸發

6.  淨輻射

7.  包溫率

8.  太陽常數

9.  科氏力

10.               太陽光譜

11.               風口

12.               錮囚鋒

 

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地理學通論題庫  go to top

考試當日於下列各題中[]五題考

試繪連續圖解,示溫帶氣旋的發育過程。

 按鋒面兩側冷氣團移動方向,鋒可分成哪幾類?他們的天氣特點如何?

試繪圖說明斷層有哪幾種型態?

試繪圖解釋自由水、棲留水、受壓水、毛管水和自流井、廣口井、泉及地下水面等名詞。

因為板塊運動,使得喜馬拉雅山上發現了許多海相的化石證據,請列舉三項海相化石例證。又板塊運動的基本模式有分離板塊運動與聚合板塊運動二種,請說明他們各有哪些形式,並各舉出一實例。「例:海洋板塊與陸地板塊的聚合,如:台灣島弧。(本例請勿選用)」

海底擴張學說有哪些支持證據?為什麼海洋地殼比大陸地殼年輕的多?

何為溫室效應?溫室效應對人類活動有何影響?

何謂風化地形?何謂崩壞地形?請各舉三例說明。

 塊體運動按其運動方式及速度的差異,可分為哪四種類形,並說明之。

試述河谷的發育有哪些作用力?

 何謂季風?季風是如何形成的?

為何一空氣團隨高度增加時,溫度會每100公尺下降約攝氏1度?但到了什麼高度以後,其每100公尺下降溫度會有約攝氏0.3-0.7度的改變,為何有如此的改變?

  請比較相對濕度和絕對濕度的異同?

  請說明霧有哪幾種形式?

比較平流霧與輻射霧的成因有何異同?

  請說明降雨有哪幾種形式?

 觀看城市遠見的影片中,法人歐斯曼在巴黎做了那些具有遠見的措施?和台北市的建設而言,你的見解為何?(影片)

  請比較我國、新加坡及美國的住宅政策有何差異?(影片)

  影響城市區位的條件有哪些?請簡述說明?(p.454

 農業生產具有哪些特點,我們應如何對待?(p.352

 試述「綠色革命」產生的原因,並舉例說明「綠色革命」給發展中國家農業發展帶來什麼變化(p.413

 熱帶雨林的脆弱性表現在什麼部位?(p.337

你是否同意力主開發熱帶雨林的觀點,為什麼?(p.337

簡要分析城市土地利用各種型態的特點。(p.510

  解釋名詞:

1.  標準氣壓

2.  牛軛湖

3.  河川襲奪

4.  地下水面

5.  蒸散及蒸發

6.  太陽常數

7.  科氏力

8.  風口

9.  錮囚鋒

 

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